Which of the following is a concern that has been raised about the current revision of the SAT Reasoning Test quizlet?

1. For children up through about the 3rd grade, a friendly examiner

a.
significantly affects performance on a test.

b.
does not significantly affect performance on a test. *****************

c.
increased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation.

d.
decreased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation.

2. Studies have demonstrated that

a.
disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance.************

b.
disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their performance.

c.
too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance.

d.
there is no relationship between the examiner's comments and test performance.

3. The "Rosenthal effect" occurs when

a.
race of the tester produces a bias.

b.
the administrators' expectations influence the respondents' scores.*************

c.
test-takers do poorly because they are fatigued.

d.
the gender of the test administrator is different than that of the examinee.

4. Research on the effects of examiners' expectations upon test scores have shown that

a.
examiners' expectations influence scores only when rapport has developed.

b.
examiners' expectations have little effect upon test scores.

c.
there is inconsistency with regard to the effect of examiners' expectations.*******************

d.
too few studies have been done to draw any conclusions.

5. Mrs. Morgan and Mrs. Malcolm are African-American and only want an African-American examiner to administer an IQ test to their children. They

a.
are justifiably concerned that their children's scores will be adversely affected by a Caucasian examiner.

b.
are operating under the widely held myth that the race of the examiner impedes performance of African-American children.********************

c.
realize that strict standards for proper test administration do not exist.

d.
realize that it is important to have an examiner that is new and unknown to the test-taker.

6. Mr. and Mrs. Lozano have recently moved to Ohio from Mexico and have been notified that their son Reuben will be given an English IQ test to determine school placement. They should

a.
not be concerned about the language of the test because one of the secretaries has offered to translate.

b.
be pleased because the school is hiring a professional to translate the test especially for Reuben.

c.
ask the school to only use a test that has been translated and subjected to reliability and validity studies in Spanish speaking populations.*******************

d.
realize that by testing their son in English, they are helping him to acculturate to his new environment much faster.

7. As sample size increases, expectancy effects tend to

a.
become more important.

b.
decrease.*****************

c.
remain stable.

d.
increase.

8. One study showed that when 6- to 13-year-olds received tokens they could exchange for money each time they gave a correct response on the WISC verbal scale, performance was improved only for

a.
White children from middle income homes.

b.
White and African American children from low income homes.

c.
African American children from low income homes.

d.
White children from low income homes.*************

9. Why is it of concern that there is not a standardized protocol for training on how to administer the WAIS-R?

a.
Individuals with only undergraduate degrees are permitted to administer it, making training especially important.

b.
The courts have repeatedly ordered the development of standardized training for the WAIS-R, but it has not been done.

c.
There is no evidence that training will improve the ability of examiners to administer and score the WAIS-R.

d.
Research indicates that errors are common until examiners have administered 10 practice tests and declines thereafter.**************

10. When asking people to provide answers to sensitive health care questions, it might be better to

a.
conduct face-to-face interviews.

b.
use self-administered questionnaires.*****************

c.
conduct telephone interviews.

d.
use younger males to conduct the interviews.

11. Studies on computer-administered interviews have shown that

a.
people will sometimes divulge more personal information to a machine than they will to a human interviewer.*****************

b.
people are reluctant to give personal information unless an interviewer is warm and empathetic.

c.
the computer is too impersonal as a mechanism for obtaining personal information.

d.
students typically dislike computer-assisted interviews and thus do not pay attention to questions.

12. Test anxiety is an example of a(n)

a.
test variable.

b.
reactivity variable.

c.
expectancy variable.

d.
subject variable.********************

13. Which of the following is true of self-report of health issues?

a.
People report more symptoms when a mailed questionnaire is used than when they are interviewed face to face.**************************

b.
People are typically reluctant to report symptoms when completing a mailed questionnaire because it feels so impersonal.

c.
Mailed questionnaires should not be used due to the possibility that private health information might be accidentally made public.

d.
It is important for an examiner to be present to explain difficult terms to those taking the test.

14. Which of the following is true concerning the language of the test taker?

a.
Language should not be of concern, since there are computer programs that will translate.

b.
The use of interpreters is helpful and typically will not affect reliability or validity.

c.
The test should be administered in the language of the majority, even if the test taker is not fluent.

d.
It is important to ensure that the translated version of the test is comparable to the original version.****************************

15. Patterson and colleagues (1995) reported that in order to reduce administration errors, test administrators should

a.
be disciplined for mistakes.

b.
practice administration about 10 times.*********************

c.
always have a supervisor observe them.

d.
reinforce test takers.

16. When men and women are told that they are taking a test that measures gender differences, which outcome can be expected?

a.
Equally qualified women will perform worse than the men.**************

b.
Equally qualified men will perform worse than the women.

c.
The men and women will perform equally well.

d.
The test is more likely to capture true differences in men and women's performance.

17. Which of the following is true of computer-assisted test administration?

a.
It reduces biases in test administration.*****************

b.
Test items are presented in a standard order for each test taker.

c.
It is a more expensive approach than traditional paper and pencil testing.

d.
People across demographic groups tend to feel more comfortable interacting with computers.

18. The mode of administration for a test

a.
should be varied for each test taker according to their individual characteristics.

b.
is not a significant variable in test taking.

c.
has only small effects in most situations.*******************

d.
has a larger effect on educational testing than clinical testing.

19. Which of the following has been proven to reduce the risk of stereotype threat?

a.
Allowing individuals to take tests independently rather than in group format.

b.
Explaining to test takers the statistics on how various demographic groups tend to perform on a test.

c.
Placing demographic questions at the end of the test rather than the beginning.********************

d.
Using test proctors from underrepresented groups.

20. Which of the following is an advantage of computer-assisted test administration?

a.
Use of computers greatly increases validity.

b.
Test takers can look ahead and skip back and forth to items they feel confident about.

c.
Computer generated reports are less likely to be misinterpreted.

d.
Items can be administered in any order.***************

21. The school board decided to send professional test administrators into the schools in an attempt to establish stricter standardization procedures for the administration of IQ tests. If you are from a socio-economically disadvantaged area, you can expect that the test scores for your school district will

a.
benefit greatly from the use of outside examiners.

b.
be equal to the scores received by students in upper socio-economic groups.

c.
be more negatively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts.*********************

d.
be more positively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts.

22. In a study of examiner reinforcement on test takers, under which condition did children score the lowest?

a.
Examiners made approving comments.

b.
Examiners made disapproving comments.************

c.
Examiners made neutral comments.

d.
Examiners made no comments.

23. Because situational variables can affect test scores, testing requires

a.
standardized conditions.***************

b.
at least two test administrators.

c.
a test administrator and an observer.

d.
test administrators with similar backgrounds and characteristics.

24. Mrs. Collins and Mrs. Grey both administered the same IQ test to their regular classes by reading instructions, refraining from providing any verbal feedback, and generally following strict procedural guidelines. Even though the classes were comparable, Mrs. Grey's class had much lower test scores than Mrs. Collins. It is likely that

a.
the instructions were not clear.

b.
standard test administration does not work.

c.
some subtle non-verbal cue or body language affected scores.*************

d.
the race of the teachers affected test scores.

25. Patty has just received a graduate degree in psychology and has been hired by a local organization to administer the WAIS-R. They should

a.
have no qualms about her qualifications for this position because she has a degree.

b.
have no qualms about her qualifications because her program required that she engage in at least 5 practice administrations of this test.

c.
be aware that errors are likely to be high unless she has completed at least 10 practice sessions.*************************

d.
realize test administer training is a highly standardized process with high quality standards.

26. Dominic, a Caucasian male, is in the first grade and his reading skills are being assessed for placement next year. His teacher is out sick on the day of his assessment test. You can expect his test score to be

a.
substantially higher than if the test were administered by the regular teacher.

b.
unaffected by the change in examiner.

c.
significantly lower as a result of an unfamiliar examiner.******************

d.
nothing more than a reflection of his reading ability.

27. Rosenthal asserted that expectancy effects are likely to result from subtle uses of

a.
reinforcement.

b.
nonverbal communication.*******************

c.
disapproving comments.

d.
gender and racial bias.

28. Studies on the effect of the race of the tester have demonstrated that

a.
African-American children consistently score higher when they are tested by African-American examiners.

b.
African-American children consistently score lower when they are tested by African-American examiners.

c.
White children consistently score higher when they are tested by White examiners.

d.
the race of the examiner does not have a consistent effect on the test scores of African-American or White children.******************

29. Worry, emotionality, and lack of self-confidence are the three components of

a.
test anxiety.**********************

b.
expectancy effects.

c.
human factors.

d.
reactivity.

30. Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate that

a.
better scores are achieved by paper and pencil tests.

b.
better scores are achieved by computer assisted tests.

c.
the scores are about equivalent.****************

d.
poorer control with computer assisted tests.

31. Which of the following is one explanation for the negative impact of test anxiety on performance?

a.
It causes students to not study as hard.

b.
The test taker is distracted by self-doubting thoughts.

c.
The examiner may provide more negative feedback to test takers who appear anxious.

d.
Anxious test takers tend to give up on tests sooner.******************

32. Donna wants to express empathy toward the individuals she is interviewing about very sensitive medical conditions. She nods in a warm and approving way each time they report a symptom. What might be expected?

a.
Participants will talk with her longer about each symptom.***********

b.
Participants will be more honest about their symptoms.

c.
Participants will show long term improvements in their symptoms.

d.
Participants will report significantly more symptoms.

33. Which of the following is a common theory regarding how stereotype threat weakens test performance?

a.
Test takers attend to the test administrator's feelings and behaviors.

b.
Test takers feel afraid to do well on the test.

c.
Test takers take longer to read the test instructions to ensure they understand.

d.
Test takers dedicate attention to themselves rather than the test.***************

34. Which comment of praise is most likely to increase a child's test performance?

a.
"You're so organized."

b.
"You are so smart."

c.
"How clever."

d.
"You worked so hard."*******************

35. Which of the following is true about the reliability of computer-administered testing in comparison to traditional assessment?

a.
It is more reliable.

b.
It is less reliable.

c.
It is just as reliable.*************************

d.
There is not yet enough research on the differences in reliability.

1. The personnel manager of ABC Company asked all of the applicants she interviewed the same questions in the same systematic fashion. She was conducting a(n) ____ interview.

a.
nondirective

b.
unstructured

c.
structured*********************

d.
diagnostic

2. An interview in which the person being interviewed is allowed to determine the direction of the interview is called a(n) ____ interview.

a.
nondirective***********************

b.
directive

c.
structured

d.
selection

3. Studies have shown that in an interview,

a.
high activity in one participant is associated with reduced activity in the other.

b.
high activity in one participant is associated with increased activity in the other.**********************

c.
the activity of one participant has nothing to do with the activity of the other.

d.
high activity in one participant tends to lead to hostility in the other.

4. During a job interview, Geoffrey found his behavior began to mimic the behavior of the nervous and disorganized interviewer. This is best described as an example of

a.
social facilitation.*******************

b.
halo effect.

c.
interpersonal attraction.

d.
paraphrasing.

5. The fact that Roger is more impressed by how much his therapist appeared to care, rather than the numerous diplomas and certificates on the therapist's walls, suggests that Roger will likely evaluate the quality of the interview as

a.
poor.

b.
average.

c.
high.*******************

d.
indeterminate.

6. Which of the following communicates "I don't approve of this aspect of you?"

a.
evaluative statements***********************

b.
probing statements

c.
hostile statements

d.
reassuring statements

7. Which type of statement tends to bring the interview to a halt, and thus violates the principles of keeping the interaction flowing?

a.
open-ended questions

b.
closed-ended questions*************************

c.
verbatim playback

d.
summarizing

8. An open-ended question

a.
requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously.***************

b.
usually can be answered specifically.

c.
have the disadvantage of limiting the topics.

d.
generally requires the person to recall something.

9. "Are you feeling good today?" is an example of a(n)

a.
open-ended question.

b.
evaluative statement.

c.
closed-ended question.******************

d.
transitional phrase.

10. A transitional phrase

a.
brings the interview to a halt.

b.
implies that the interviewee should continue talking about the same topic.****************************

c.
communicates empathy.

d.
should be avoided in unstructured facilitative interviews.

11. The statement, "Yes, I see" might best be described as

a.
probing.

b.
verbatim playback.

c.
transitional.***********************

d.
clarification.

12. A powerful response that communicates that the interviewer understands how the interviewee must be feel is a(n)

a.
clarification response.

b.
therapeutic response.

c.
verbatim playback.

d.
empathic response.**********************

13. Which level of communication indicates only a superficial level of awareness of the meaning of a statement?

a.
level 1

b.
level 2

c.
level 3

d.
level 4*********************

14. According to Carkhuff and Berenson, a level one response

a.
communicates some awareness of the meaning of a statement.

b.
is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement.

c.
goes beyond the statement given.

d.
bears little relationship to the interviewee's response.************

15. Understanding responses are important because they

a.
help an interviewee explore themselves at deeper levels.***************

b.
help the interviewee decide what action to take.

c.
indicate what the interviewee should not do.

d.
make an interviewee feel good.

16. Because they were interviewing for a public relations position that would involve dealing with very volatile situations on very short notice, the MEM Oil Co. deliberately induced a degree of anxiety in the interview process. They were using a technique known as the ____ interview.

a.
structured

b.
evaluative

c.
stress*********************

d.
probing

17. Although interviewers normally avoid ____ statements, they may be necessary when interviewing a child or someone with mental retardation.

a.
evaluative

b.
probing********************

c.
hostile

d.
judgmental

18. Within Carkhuff and Berenson's five-point system, what is the minimum level of responding necessary to keep the interaction flowing?

a.
III *************************

b.
I

c.
II

d.
V

19. Attempts to measure understanding began with the work of

a.
Carkhuff.

b.
Berenson.

c.
Saccuzzo.*************************

d.
Rogers.

20. Structured clinical interviews have been criticized because

a.
they rely completely on self-report data.***************

b.
reliability is very low.

c.
they are very brief.

d.
it is difficult to define a specific group.

21. Susan just stated that she hates her brother. Which of the following statements is likely to keep the conversation flowing?

a.
"Hating is wrong."

b.
"I very much doubt that you actually hate him."

c.
"I hated my brother when I was your age."

d.
"You are angry with your brother."************************

22. According to general standoutishness theory,

a.
more attractive applicants are treated more favorably in telephone interviews.

b.
less attractive applicants are more favorably treated in telephone interviews.*************************

c.
more attractive applicants are treated less favorably in in-person interviews.

d.
less attractive applicants are treated more favorably in in-person interviews.

23. To keep the interaction flowing in unstructured interviews, the interviewer must

a.
remain quiet and not interrupt the interviewee.**************

b.
ask several probing questions.

c.
stop the interviewee to insert their perspectives if they talk for too long.

d.
use social facilitation to model the behavior of talking a lot.

24. Which of the following elicits self-exploration?

a.
accurate empathy******************

b.
false reassurance

c.
social influence

d.
transitional phrases

25. Which of the following is the most effective means for reducing bias in an interview?

a.
Matching interviewer and interviewee on race and gender

b.
Using more open-ended questions

c.
Focusing on more general rather than individuating information

d.
Using a highly structured interview******************

26. Which of the following is NOT assessed during a mental status exam?

a.
attitudes

b.
case history*******************

c.
behaviors

d.
appearance

27. Which of the following describes interpersonal influence?

a.
The degree to which particular interview questions influence a respondent's behavior in the interview.

b.
The degree to which one person can influence another.*******************

c.
The degree to which interview type influences the responses elicited from respondents.

d.
The degree to which people share a feeling of understanding, mutual respect, similarity, and the like.

28. A(n) ____ interview was developed in order to help overcome the low reliability in psychiatric diagnosis.

a.
evaluation

b.
structured clinical*******************

c.
case history

d.
mental status

29. Why is the question "Why?" to be avoided in interviews?

a.
It is too open-ended and is ineffective in gathering needed information.

b.
It demands that interviewees explain their behavior and may be perceived as judgmental.*******************************

c.
It encourages interviewees to launch long explanations rather than addressing real issues.

d.
People are generally not very good at analyzing "why" questions to explain specific behaviors.

30. "Don't worry, everything will be all right" is an example of

a.
a probing statement.

b.
a clarification statement.

c.
false reassurance.************************

d.
verbatim playback.

31. Which of the following is an open-ended question?

a.
Are you having problems?

b.
Is your father strict?

c.
What kinds of recreation do you enjoy?********************

d.
Would you like to visit Paris?

32. In an effective interview, the interviewer maintains face-to-face contact and ____ to keep the interactions flowing.

a.
exerts minimal effort***********************

b.
avoids directing the conversation

c.
exerts a great deal of effort

d.
uses closed-ended questions

33. By replacing "why?" statements with "tell me" or "how?" statements, an interviewer can occasionally make wise use of ____ statements.

a.
evaluative

b.
judgmental

c.
probing******************

d.
hostile

34. Clarification statements

a.
serve to clarify the interviewee's response.

b.
remain very close to the meaning of the interviewee's response.

c.
may add to the interviewee's response.

d.
all of these*******************

35. Which of the following demands more information than the interviewee would be willing to provide voluntarily?

a.
evaluative statements

b.
probing statements************************

c.
hostile statements

d.
reassuring statements

1. In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler Scales, alternative forms

a.
are more stable.

b.
are not as psychometrically sound.************************

c.
are more reliant on verbal responses.

d.
provide more validity documentation.

2. Which ability test preceded the development of the Binet scale?

a.
Healy-Fernald Test

b.
The Knox Battery

c.
Seguin Form Board Test*****************

d.
Gesell Developmental Schedules

3. An IQ score based on one of the alternative tests

a.
is usually interchangeable with a score from one of the major scales.

b.
is usually more accurate than a score from one of the major scales.

c.
should generally not be used interchangeably with a score from one of the major scales.*********************

d.
is generally more reliable than a score based on one of the major scales.

4. The Brazelton Scale

a.
has relatively good norms.

b.
lacks predictive validity.***********************

c.
has very poor inter-rater reliability.

d.
is stable over time.

5. Test-retest reliability coefficients for the Brazelton Scale

a.
are both good and stable.

b.
are generally good but unstable.

c.
are generally poor but stable.

d.
are both poor and unstable.**********************

6. The Gesell scale

a.
presents strong evidence of reliability in the test manual.

b.
presents strong evidence of validity in the test manual.

c.
has an excellent normative sample.

d.
is based on a longitudinal study of early human development.*****************

7. The Bayley III Scales

a.
are currently the most psychometrically rigorous.*******************

b.
predict future intelligence in children with high intelligence.

c.
do not predict well for infants with cognitive impairments.

d.
were designed for children between 3 and 5 years of age.

8. The McCarthy Scales

a.
are psychometrically unsound.

b.
are outdated and have only historical significance.

c.
are widely used in research.********************

d.
represent a novel conceptualization of intelligence.

9. The General Cognitive Index

a.
is derived by the formula GC = MA/CA X 100.

b.
is derived by the formula GC = CA/MA X 100.

c.
is a standard score with a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10.

d.
is a standard score with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 16.************************************

10. Which of the following tests uses the General Cognitive Index (GCI)?

a.
Bayley Scales III

b.
Gesell Developmental Schedules

c.
Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale

d.
McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities*********************

11. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC)

a.
was developed in the 1970s.

b.
contains only three subtests.

c.
is an ability test for children 3 to 18 years of age.********************

d.
was developed to assess only infants.

12. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale is a reliable instrument, but is not useful in assessing individuals

a.
with sensory handicaps.

b.
with physical handicaps.

c.
under the age of 3 years.******************

d.
with language handicaps.

13. When used with adults, the ____ tends to underestimate IQ.

a.
Wechsler

b.
KABC

c.
Binet

d.
Peabody Picture Vocabulary**********************

14. Which test is especially vulnerable to random errors?

a.
Columbia Mental Maturity Scale************************

b.
Leiter International Performance Scale

c.
Porteus Maze Test

d.
KABC

15. Which of the following tests is based on the information processing approach?

a.
Leiter International Performance Scale

b.
Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test

c.
Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities**********************

d.
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

16. Which of the following is true of the Brazelton test?

a.
Infants must be at least 6 weeks old before it can be used.

b.
It has the greatest breadth of infant tests.********************

c.
It has very limited research support.

d.
The norming sample was representative of the U.S. population.

17. The underlying assumption of the Gesell Developmental Schedules is that

a.
intelligent infants are better able to interact with their caregivers.

b.
early developmental deficits are not predictive of continued deficits.

c.
properly developed and administered infant intelligence tests predict subsequent intelligence.

d.
human development unfolds in stages over time.*****************

18. Which of the following is superior to the ITPA for evaluating learning disabilities?

a.
Woodcock-Johnson**************

b.
Bender

c.
Leiter

d.
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

19. The McCarthy Scales

a.
can compete with the Wechsler Scale.

b.
are no longer sold.

c.
lack recent norms.******************

d.
were last revised in 2013.

20. According to the concept of psychological deficit,

a.
poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by some underlying psychological deficit.*******************************

b.
poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low intelligence.

c.
poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low motivation.

d.
poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by a situational factors.

21. The Woodcock-Johnson IV test batteries

a.
are administered at separate time periods.

b.
are independent but coordinated.*****************

c.
only measure general intellectual ability.

d.
consist of seven subscales.

22. Multiple standardization procedures on the TTCT over time have shown that in the general population, IQ has ________, while creativity has ________.

a.
stayed the same; increased

b.
decreased; increased

c.
stayed the same; decreased

d.
increased; decreased**********************

23. When compared to the general population, the Bayley III standardization sample is

a.
lower in achievement.

b.
higher in achievement.

c.
lower in ability.**************

d.
higher in ability.

24. Which of the following is an example of simultaneous processing?

a.
synthesizing information to solve problems***********************

b.
arranging information in a systematic order

c.
splitting attention between two sources of information

d.
any activity that involves both verbal and nonverbal skills.

25. The general reaction among reviewers to the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking has been

a.
unequivocal praise.

b.
strongly positive with some negative criticism.

c.
generally negative with some positive support.

d.
a suggestion that more work is needed.****************

26. The main purpose of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities is to measure

a.
infant intelligence.

b.
sensory handicaps.

c.
specific learning disabilities.******************

d.
brain damage.

27. Which test is strictly a performance scale aimed at providing a nonverbal measure of intelligence for individuals from 3 to 75 years and older?

a.
Columbia Mental Maturity Scale

b.
Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test

c.
Leiter International Performance Scale-Third Edition******************

d.
KABC

28. The KABC

a.
has limited validity when evaluating gifted children.******************

b.
is unbiased when used with Mexican-American children.

c.
has a combined intelligence and achievement scale.

d.
produces large differences between African-American and white children.

29. The KABC

a.
tends to show larger African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet.

b.
tends to show smaller African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet.*********************

c.
is not appropriate for evaluating African-American children.

d.
is not appropriate for evaluating white children.

30. The Bayley-III is designed to be used with children from ____ of age.

a.
3 days to 4 weeks

b.
1 month to 42 months**********************

c.
2 months to 30 months

d.
2 years to 6 years

31. The developmental quotient (DQ)

a.
parallels the Intelligence Quotient (IQ) concept.

b.
parallels the Mental Age (MA) concept.*************

c.
cannot be compared to the IQ or MA concept.

d.
parallels the deviation IQ concept.

32. Of the infant and preschool tests, the youngest age range is covered by

a.
The Bayley Scales of Infant Development II.

b.
The Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale.*******************

c.
The Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.

d.
Gesell Developmental Schedules.

33. Normative data for the Gesell Scale

a.
were based on a large representative sample.

b.
included 10 percent minorities.

c.
were based on a small, but representative sample for the general population.

d.
was not representative of the population.***************

34. According to the laws on special education testing, when evaluating a student for a learning disability to qualify for special education,

a.
the Binet test must be used.

b.
the Wechsler test must be used.

c.
both the Binet and Wechsler tests must be used.

d.
neither the Binet nor the Wechsler test must be used.*********************

35. Alternative individual ability tests

a.
are often not as reliant on a verbal response as are the Binet and Wechsler scales.****************************

b.
depend more on complex integration of visual/motor functioning.

c.
are psychometrically superior to the Binet and Wechsler scales.

d.
do not make use of performance tasks.

1. In general, group tests

a.
are psychometrically sound.******************

b.
lack documentation.

c.
are essay-type tests.

d.
lack reliability and validity.

2. When utilizing the results of group tests, it is wise to

a.
be suspicious of high scores.

b.
refrain from the use of additional testing.

c.
include the scores as only a part of the data.******************

d.
look for wide discrepancies to verify findings.

3. Which of the following is important to remember when using group tests?

a.
Group tests typically lack validity and have other poorly defined psychometric qualities.

b.
Discrepancies in scores between group tests and other measures should be investigated.**************************

c.
Because they lack the detailed standardization of individual tests, group tests should be used cautiously.

d.
Contrary to stereotype, group tests require considerable expertise to administer and score.

4. Which of the following is characteristic of aptitude tests?

a.
Aptitude tests reflect the test-taker's learning experiences.

b.
Validity is related to content-related evidence.

c.
Aptitude tests measure the effects of unknown and uncontrolled experiences.*********************************

d.
Aptitude tests typically have only limited ability to predict future behavior.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test?

a.
While most achievement tests rely increasingly on verbal items with increasing grade level, the KAT remains nonverbal throughout.******************

b.
The KAT cannot be used with students who have disabilities of any type.

c.
Despite its wide use, there remains serious concerns about the reliability and validity of the KAT.

d.
The KAT is suited only for those who speak English at grade level.

6. Which of the following types of tests typically predicts general ability?

a.
aptitude

b.
achievement

c.
intelligence*********************

d.
group

7. The Kuhlmann-Anderson Test

a.
is an extremely sound instrument.*********************

b.
has good validity but poor reliability.

c.
is primarily a verbal test.

d.
is useful only for pre-school age children.

8. Validity for the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test

a.
is well documented.*****************

b.
is poorly documented.

c.
is not based on correlations with other IQ tests.

d.
relies on face validity.

9. Which test is especially useful if nonverbal items are needed?

a.
the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test******************

b.
the Cognitive Abilities Test

c.
the Henmon-Nelson Test

d.
the Millers Analogies Test

10. Unlike most multi-level batteries, the Kuhlman-Anderson Test

a.
is primarily non-verbal.********************

b.
is for individuals in pre-school through 2nd grade.

c.
has poor norms.

d.
is difficult to administer.

11. The Stanford and Metropolitan are both ____ tests.

a.
intelligence

b.
aptitude

c.
nonverbal

d.
achievement*********************

12. The major weakness of the SAT lies in its

a.
poor reliability.

b.
poor predictive power in discriminating students who score in the middle ranges.********************

c.
lack of separate norms as a function of various demographic variables.

d.
relatively small normative sample.

13. The stability of the GRE has been evaluated by

a.
Kuder-Richardson.***************************

b.
extensive test-retest reliability coefficients.

c.
inter-rater reliability coefficients.

d.
correlating scores to a number of students who completed graduate school.

14. One shortfall of the ACT is that

a.
it has low internal consistency coefficients.*************************

b.
it does not predict first year college GPAs.

c.
the ITED must be administered along with it.

d.
it does not compare well to the SAT.

15. One reason that GRE scores and graduate GPAs have low correlations may be

a.
underprediction of younger examinees.

b.
range restriction.***********************

c.
selection bias.

d.
improper administration.

16. A score of 600 on the verbal section of the GRE would indicate that the individual scored

a.
at the mean.

b.
one standard deviation below the mean.

c.
one standard deviation above the mean.**********************

d.
two standard deviations above the mean.

17. The Raven Progressive Matrices Test

a.
cannot be administered to language-impaired individuals.

b.
measures general intelligence, or Spearman's g.****************

c.
is poorly constructed psychometrically.

d.
is an individual test.

18. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery

a.
has poor psychometric characteristics.

b.
is not a valid predictor of training performance.

c.
does not have adequate norming information.

d.
now has a computerized adaptive version.********************

19. Which of the following was developed by the U.S. Employment Service to measure occupational aptitude?

a.
IPAT Culture Fair Intelligence Test

b.
Wonderlic Personnel Test

c.
General Aptitude Test Battery****************************

d.
Raven Progressive Matrices

20. The GRE is a strong predictor of

a.
clinical skills.

b.
first year graduate school grades.

c.
ability to solve real world problems.

d.
none of the above************************

21. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group tests?

a.
They are cost-efficient.

b.
Scoring is more objective.

c.
Scores are more reliable.

d.
Examiners have more training.********************

22. The COGAT Form 7 is a measure of

a.
crystallized intelligence.

b.
achievement.

c.
fluid intelligence.***************

d.
visual-motor functioning.

23. Which test is a sensitive discriminator for giftedness?

a.
COGAT**************

b.
KAT

c.
Henmon-Nelson

d.
SAT

24. Which of the following group tests can be either group or individually administered?

a.
Cognitive Abilities Test

b.
Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test*****************

c.
Miller Analogies Test

d.
Henmon-Nelson Test

25. The IPAT Culture Fair Test was designed to

a.
eliminate cultural influences in an ability test.******************

b.
estimate the intelligence of language impaired children.

c.
estimate the intelligence of language impaired adults.

d.
be used with children three years of age and younger.

26. The Miller Analogies Test

a.
is strictly verbal and timed.****************

b.
is strictly verbal but not timed.

c.
contains verbal and performance items and is timed.

d.
contains verbal and performance items but is not timed.

27. Which test is likely to take two or three days to complete?

a.
COGAT**********************

b.
KAT

c.
Henmon-Nelson

d.
SAT

28. Although it has limits pertaining to the identification of giftedness and the identification of disabilities in minority groups, which of the following tests is a good choice when a quick measure is needed?

a.
COGAT

b.
KAT

c.
Henmon-Nelson*****************

d.
SAT

29. Which of the following group tests has advantages over the Henmon-Nelson Test in selecting minority, culturally diverse, and economically disadvantaged children?

a.
the Cognitive Abilities Test***********************

b.
the Scholastic Assessment Test

c.
the Kuhlman-Anderson Test

d.
the Metropolitan Achievement Test

30. Scoring of group tests is ____ objective and ____ reliable than scoring of many individual tests.

a.
more; less

b.
less; more

c.
more; more***************

d.
less; less

31. A final examination in a school course is a type of ____ test.

a.
achievement*********

b.
aptitude

c.
performance

d.
intelligence

32. In general, a paper and pencil test is representative of

a.
individual tests.

b.
intelligence tests.

c.
verbal tests.

d.
group tests.***************

33. Which of the following is an advantage of group tests?

a.
They provide information beyond the test score.

b.
They require minimal examiner skill to administer and score.***********

c.
They allow interpretation of the test scores.

d.
They allow observation of behavior under standard conditions.

34. Which of the followings is an example of a K-12 group test?

a.
KAT***********

b.
LSAT

c.
GRE

d.
ACT

35. A percentile band

a.
provides the range of percent correct for any given group of individuals.

b.
provides the range of percentiles that are likely to represent a subject's true score.******************

c.
is formed as an interval one standard error of measurement above and below the true score.

d.
represents all scores below the mean score.

1. Who first introduced the Rorschach to the United States?

a.
Marguerite Hertz

b.
J. Kerner

c.
David Levy**********************

d.
Samuel Beck

2. Which of the following is true of the Rorschach?

a.
It was treated with suspicion from the beginning.*******************

b.
It is the most widely used psychological test.

c.
Recent scoring revisions have eliminated the most serious objections.

d.
It has finally become a widely accepted method in psychology.

3. Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in

a.
estimating the skills of the administrator.

b.
specifying reliability.

c.
differentiating between normal and disordered conditions.

d.
determining whether the individual taking the test understands the instructions.***************

4. What are the content types of the Rorschach?

a.
positive and negative

b.
human, animal, and nature***************

c.
nature and nurture

d.
reality-based and fantasy-based

5. The Dd response refers to

a.
an unusual detail.********************

b.
a divided response.

c.
a double response.

d.
animal content.

6. Early proponents of the Rorschach gave impressive demonstrations that seemed to support the reliability of the test. These demonstrations

a.
are unquestionable evidence of the effectiveness of the Rorschach.

b.
have been labeled as the result of the Barnum effect.****************

c.
depended on the evaluator giving one specific analysis.

d.
were undoubtedly given before the analyst knew anything about the patient.

7. According to the text, Rorschach "virtuosos"

a.
performed significantly better in controlled studies than in clinical settings.

b.
were actually no better than chance in their clinical assessments.

c.
performed no better than chance when tested in controlled studies.*********************

d.
never actually had their expertise statistically analyzed.

8. The first phase of Rorschach administration is called

a.
free association.**************

b.
process monitoring.

c.
inquiry.

d.
initial interpretation.

9. In order to remedy problems identified in the Rorschach, Exner developed

a.
the concept of determinants.

b.
highly structured administration protocols.

c.
the Comprehensive System for scoring.***************

d.
revised stimuli.

10. The Rorschach tends to ____ emotionally disturbed individuals.

a.
accurately identify

b.
underestimate the number of

c.
overestimate adults but not children as

d.
identify over half of normal subjects as****************

11. The psychometric properties of the Rorschach have been difficult to evaluate because

a.
the Rorschach is difficult to administer.

b.
there is no universally accepted method of administration.*****************

c.
responses can only be subjectively evaluated.

d.
the Rorschach has no clinical utility.

12. Supportive evidence in favor of the Holtzman Inkblot Test

a.
is highly objective.

b.
is based on quantitative features.

c.
appears to depend on examiner skill.******************

d.
depends on formal interpretive standards.

13. The work of which theorist underlies the Thematic Apperception Test?

a.
Beck

b.
Murray******************

c.
Freud

d.
Jung

14. Almost all TAT methods of interpretation take into account

a.
hero, needs, and thought content.

b.
overt behavior, press, and themes.

c.
press, needs, and outcomes.****************

d.
fantasies, press, and themes.

15. In TAT interpretation, the environmental forces that interfere with or facilitate the satisfaction of various needs are called

a.
press.***************

b.
external stimuli.

c.
themes.

d.
determiners.

16. Word association tests can be traced back to

a.
Kerner.

b.
Galton.*****************

c.
Cattell.

d.
Guilford.

17. One of the most valid figure drawing tests is the

a.
Draw-a-Person Test.

b.
House-Tree-Person Test.

c.
Kinetic Family Drawing Test.

d.
Goodenough Draw-a-Man Test.******************

18. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) found higher reliability for the TAT when using

a.
split-half reliabilities.

b.
category scores as items rather than picture scores.****************

c.
longer testing intervals.

d.
Kuder-Richardson reliabilities, as was studied in the Rorschach.

19. The first stimulus cards created by Rorschach were developed by

a.
throwing loose ink on blank paper hung on a clothes line.

b.
hand drawing unique and intricate abstract designs.

c.
dropping ink onto a piece of paper and folding it.*****************

d.
smudging ink onto paper using sponges.

20. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) maintain that the problem of low reliability in projective testing stems from

a.
lack of validity of projective tests.

b.
use of category scores instead of image scores.

c.
incorrect use of internal consistency coefficients.*******************

d.
low sample size for reliability testing.

21. Despite findings that indicate it is perhaps the most psychometrically sound projective test, the ____ is rarely used in clinical settings.

a.
Draw-A Person Test

b.
Children's Apperception Test

c.
Washington University Sentence Completion Test***************

d.
Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank

22. On the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank,

a.
short, humorous sentences generally receive the highest scores.*****************

b.
humor tends to lower scores.

c.
long, complex sentences generally receive higher scores.

d.
short, humorous sentences generally receive lower scores.

23. Validity studies of the TAT suggest that

a.
validity of the TAT depends on high test-retest reliability.

b.
validity of the TAT depends on high split-half reliability.

c.
there is content-related validity.***************

d.
validity of the TAT does not depend on split-half reliability.

24. Compared to the Rorschach, standardization of administration and scoring of the TAT

a.
is clearly better.

b.
is about the same.******************

c.
is clearly worse.

d.
is inconsistent.

25. Gamble (1972) reviewed the literature on the Holtzman and concluded that the

a.
Holtzman is clearly superior to the Rorschach.

b.
Holtzman is clearly inferior to the Rorschach.

c.
Holtzman and Rorschach are about equally sound.

d.
data are insufficient and it should not be considered any more useful than the Rorschach.*****************

26. Form quality is a scoring dimension that refers to

a.
where the perception was seen.

b.
what determined the response.

c.
the extent to which the response matched the stimulus qualities of the inkblot.************

d.
what the perception was.

27. Use of the Kuder-Richardson formula

a.
corrects for faking.

b.
yields analyzable data.

c.
increases estimates of reliability.**********

d.
eliminates random variability.

28. Early demonstrations of the Rorschach included validation by

a.
reviews by content-area experts familiar with the underlying constructs.

b.
performance of individuals who analyzed the responses of individuals they had never met, making a diagnosis, and validating the diagnosis against other data sources.****************

c.
large-scale field work that involved thousands of individuals tested by hundreds of administrators whose skill levels varied.

d.
standard psychometric methods that yielded surprisingly high validity.

29. The two phases of Rorschach administration are called

a.
phase I and phase II.

b.
free response and determinant.

c.
free association and inquiry.******************

d.
associational and inquiry.

30. The main difficulty with the Holtzman Inkblot Test is

a.
cumbersome administration.

b.
questionable validity.********************

c.
lack of an alternative form.

d.
lack of normative data.

31. Most researchers today feel that the Comprehensive System for scoring

a.
is an effective improvement to the Rorschach.

b.
has failed to remedy the problems associated with the Rorschach.************

c.
still has a ways to go but at least provides adequate norms.

d.
makes improvements that allow the test to be used in forensic settings.

32. Scoring of content on the Rorschach

a.
is impossible.

b.
is extremely difficult.

c.
cannot be done reliably.

d.
is a relatively simple matter.***************

33. TAT interpretation relies most heavily upon

a.
elaborate, complex scoring systems.

b.
quantitative methods.

c.
qualitative methods.************

d.
computer scoring.

34. The Holtzman Test

a.
is an alternative to the Rorschach.****************

b.
is an alternative to the TAT.

c.
has proven to be more useful than the Rorschach in clinical settings.

d.
has proven to be more useful than the alternatives to the traditional procedures.

35. An analysis of existing results concerning the reliability of the TAT indicates that when specific variables such as the need for achievement are studied,

a.
respectably high reliability figures are found.*************

b.
low reliability figures are found.

c.
modestly positive reliability figures are found.

d.
inconclusive results are found.

1. Which type of therapy is based on principles of learning?

a.
cognitive

b.
client-centered

c.
behavior modification****************

d.
personality

2. Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on ____ as the main problem in a disorder.

a.
the behavior*******************

b.
repressed memory

c.
previous trauma

d.
personality

3. A behavioral assessment that involves evaluating the current frequency of a behavior, designing a treatment intervention using reinforcement, and then evaluating the effect of the treatment relative to a baseline, is based on

a.
classical conditioning.

b.
psychosocial effects.

c.
operant conditioning.*************

d.
backward conditioning.

4. Which of the following models assumes that overt manifestations of psychopathology are only symptoms of an underlying problem?

a.
Kanfer and Saslow's model

b.
the operant conditioning model

c.
the medical model*************

d.
the social ecology model

5. Cognitive-behavioral and traditional procedures differ in that

a.
cognitive-behavioral procedures are more direct and remain closer to observable behaviors.****************

b.
traditional procedures have fewer inferential assumptions.

c.
traditional procedures measure the overt manifestations of psychological disorders.

d.
cognitive-behavioral procedures tend to be based on the medical model.

6. Joey's parents went to a therapist to help them overcome Joey's fear of going to school. Before she helped them create a reward system for each time their son went to school without crying, the therapist first determined the severity and frequency of the behavior. The therapist was

a.
establishing a baseline.****************

b.
developing a diagnosis.

c.
establishing rapport.

d.
assessing the cause of behavior.

7. Ken is having trouble at work because his boss takes advantage of him and gives him twice as much work as anyone else. Ken has trouble saying 'no' to his boss but then gets very angry because of all the work he has to do. Ken's therapist is likely to use the ____ in order to assess Ken's behavior in this particular situation.

a.
Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule******************

b.
Miller Analogies Test

c.
Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

d.
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

8. The school counselor has administered the ____ to Danielle to assess her belief that unless she gets an A in all of her courses, she will be viewed as stupid and incompetent.

a.
WAIS

b.
FSS

c.
IBT*****************

d.
DAS

9. Procedures and tools that are intended to increase a subject's awareness of a particular behavior by providing feedback are known as

a.
projective tests.

b.
personal profiles.

c.
structured tests.

d.
self monitoring devices.***************

10. Self-report techniques of cognitive-behavioral assessment

a.
tend to focus on situations that lead to particular response patterns.**********************

b.
implicitly assume construct validity.

c.
include such procedures as the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet.

d.
focus primarily on underlying personality traits.

11. The functional (behavior-analytic) approach to assessment is a product of

a.
the Self-Report Battery.

b.
Meichenbaum.

c.
Kanfer and Saslow.****************

d.
the Fear Survey Schedule.

12. Research indicates that the effects of social desirability are ____ in computer-administered interviews as compared to face-to-face interviews.

a.
increased

b.
decreased******************

c.
about the same

d.
increased for sensitive subject areas

13. Why are self-report methods often preferred to observer methods?

a.
The mere presence of an observer can influence the occurrence of the target behaviors.***********************

b.
Self-report measures allow the individual to feel more in control of the situation.

c.
The mere act of self-report typically induces the desired changes.

d.
Insurance companies will not pay for observer ratings.

14. In cognitive-behavioral approaches, the primary determinant of the behavior is viewed as

a.
the individual's attitudes

b.
the situation*********************

c.
the reinforcement history

d.
lack of learning and knowledge

15. The premise underlying a Cognitive Functional Analysis is that

a.
overt behavior rather than underlying causes should be the primary focus of the assessment.

b.
what a person says to himself or herself plays a critical role in behavior.**********************

c.
assessment of the internal dialogue has no place in the cognitive-behavioral assessment process.

d.
self-report procedures are they only useful technique in cognitive-behavioral assessment.

16. Which of the following researchers in psychophysiological assessment demonstrated that the fear response was related to specific physiological changes?

a.
Klinger

b.
Powell

c.
Azrin

d.
Ax*****************

17. Which of the following has been an impediment to the widespread use of computers in cognitive-behavioral assessment?

a.
questionable reliability

b.
lack of acceptance by practitioners******************

c.
difficulty with computerized test administration

d.
unreliable scoring of behavioral data

18. One potential drawback to the computerization of traditional tests is that

a.
there is a significant reduction in reliability.

b.
interpretations based on computer programs must be viewed with caution.***************

c.
computerized test administration is cumbersome.

d.
there is a significant decrease in validity.

19. Jessica and her twin brother took a college entrance exam via computer. When talking afterwards, they found they had responded to different questions. The computer provided each question based on how well they had done on the previous question. This is known as

a.
individualized testing.

b.
computer adaptive testing.*******************

c.
selective assessment.

d.
projective testing.

20. A cognitive-behavioral intervention has failed when the critical behavior

a.
is formed.

b.
remains at or above baseline levels.******************

c.
is modified in any way.

d.
drops below the baseline.

21. In the ideal situation, the behavioral observer will be

a.
an untrained, objective individual unknown to the subject or the behavior modification process.

b.
a parent or other person with intimate knowledge of the subject.

c.
a practitioner or trained assistant.**********************

d.
a familiar individual that the subject is comfortable with but that can be more objective than a parent (e.g. a teacher)

22. Eliza, the computer program developed to emulate the behavior of a psychotherapist

a.
produced a superficial interaction with clients.

b.
engendered positive emotions and a connection with clients.*****************

c.
was unable to exhibit empathy.

d.
used a cognitive-behavioral approach.

23. Internet administration of psychological tests is generally

a.
adequate.***********************

b.
not recommended.

c.
better than other methods.

d.
worse than paper and pencil tests.

24. In general, the results of computerized testing are ____ when compared to paper and pencil testing.

a.
lower

b.
lower for adults, but not for children

c.
less accurate

d.
about the same*****************

25. One problem in psychophysiological assessment is that

a.
no relationship has been found between physiological processes and cognitive processes.

b.
there may be artifacts.*************

c.
they are too time intensive.

d.
they are not cost-effective.

26. In comparison to the Irrational Beliefs Test (IBT), the Irrational Beliefs Inventory (IBI)
​

a.
is much longer and more complex.

b.
focuses on cognitions rather than negative affect.***************

c.
lacks consistent psychometric properties across cultures.

d.
is less useful in clinical settings.

27. Which of the following is true of cognitive-behavioral self-report procedures?

a.
They are not yet well-established clinical tools.****************

b.
They are strongly preferred by most clinicians.

c.
They require substantial skill to administer, score, and interpret.

d.
They typically lack face validity.

28. When cognitive-behavioral assessment methods are compared to traditional assessments, cognitive-behavioral assessments

a.
make fewer inferential assumptions.*************

b.
are plagued with problems related to definition.

c.
have fallen into disfavor.

d.
are generally of lower reliability and validity.

29. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of

a.
a self-report technique.*************

b.
Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach.

c.
a psychophysiological assessment.

d.
a psychophysical procedure.

30. Generally, all of the problems of early structured personality tests apply to

a.
self-report techniques.*****************

b.
Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach.

c.
psychophysiological assessment.

d.
psychophysical procedures.

31. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a

a.
traditional psychological test.

b.
self-report measure.*****************

c.
projective behavioral test.

d.
psychophysiological procedure.

32. Organized cognitive frameworks that help organize experiences, interpret new experiences, and make predictions about what is likely to happen in the future are called

a.
schemas.*************

b.
self-concepts.

c.
biases.

d.
prototypes.

33. The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and duration of a behavior is known as

a.
behavioral assessment.

b.
establishing a baseline.***************

c.
a critical response.

d.
operant conditioning.

34. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to

a.
develop reinforcers.

b.
identify critical behaviors.***************

c.
determine a baseline.

d.
determine the cause of the problem behavior.

35. Cognitive-behavioral self-reports are best used in conjunction with other sources of information because

a.
they only address a small number of behaviors.

b.
they are very difficult to administer.

c.
little psychometric data is available for any of them.***********

d.
very few such tests even exist.

1. Studies by Strong on occupational interests demonstrated that

a.
occupational interests are very unstable and may change from year to year.

b.
occupational interests are stable during high school years but become unstable during adulthood.

c.
occupational interests remain relatively stable after students have left school.*******************

d.
occupational interests are stable during high school and college years, become unstable during the 30s, and become stable once again later in life.

2. According to Holland's six personality factors, an individual that enjoys self-expression and being dramatic would fall on the ____ factor.

a.
realistic

b.
investigative

c.
artistic********************

d.
social

3. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the

a.
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.*****************

b.
Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory.

c.
Career Assessment Inventory.

d.
Carnegie Interest Inventory.

4. Suppose you scored very high on the Dentist Scale of the SCII. This would suggest that

a.
you are interested in dentistry.

b.
your interests are similar to those of people who say they are happy working as dentists.****************

c.
you have a high aptitude for dentistry.

d.
the chances are good that you will be a successful dentist.

5. Which of the following statements is true?

a.
Scores on the Kuder remain stable over the course of time, but scores on the SCII tend not to.

b.
Scores on the SCII remain stable over time while scores on the Kuder tend not to.

c.
Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII do not remains table over time.

d.
Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII remain stable over the course of time.******************

6. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicate

a.
poor reliability.

b.
poor validity.

c.
good reliability and predictive validity measures.****************

d.
Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicateless predictive validity in college graduates.

7. Which of the following tests may help college students choose a major?

a.
Strong Vocational Interest Blank

b.
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey*****************

c.
Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

d.
Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory

8. Which of the following interest inventories is primarily designed for non-college bound individuals?

a.
the KOIS

b.
the SCII

c.
the CAI******************

d.
the SII

9. The ____ is useful when planning a midlife career change

a.
MVII

b.
SCII

c.
KOIS

d.
JVIS************8

10. Marjorie wants to get some information about possible career choices she might like. She would prefer to use some assessment that she can complete on her own rather than arranging an appointment with a career counselor. Marjorie might be interested in the

a.
MVII.

b.
JVIS.

c.
SDS.***************

d.
CAI.

c

11. Which test includes a scale that assesses the degree of skill in a number of specific occupations in addition to the scales that assess interest in academic and occupational topics?

a.
KOIS

b.
CISS******************

c.
SVIB

d.
JVIS

12. Which of the following is true of the 1966 SVIB?

a.
It included 54 occupations for men but only 32 for women.****************

b.
It had very serious problems with reliability.

c.
It was developed using the theoretical approach.

d.
The interest patterns are not stable over time.

13. Which theorist had an influence on the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory?

a.
Holland*****************

b.
Murray

c.
Maslow

d.
Skinner

14. Which of the following is a criticism of the 1977 version of the SCII?

a.
It is too similar to the SVIB.

b.
It lacks predictive validity.

c.
The individuals in the criterion groups were older than the individuals who typically take the test.********************

d.
It is based on the assumption that an individual's interest in their late teens or early twenties will be stable.

15. Which of the following is true of Holland's Self-Directed Search?

a.
It helps individuals develop a personal career theory.************

b.
It identifies individuals' strengths and weaknesses.

c.
It yields impressive correlations between test results and stated career aspirations.

d.
It is very difficult to score correctly and this has harmed its validity.

16. Which of the following approaches to assessment is used in Osipow's approach to occupational assessment?

a.
matching traits to occupations****************

b.
assessing career maturity

c.
assessing career preferences

d.
using interview data exclusively

17. Who postulated that interests were an expression of personality that could be divided into one or more of six categories?

a.
D. P. Campbell

b.
E. K. Strong, Jr.

c.
R. L. Thorndike

d.
J. L. Holland**************

18. The approach of ____ involves the administration of an extensive test battery that includes the Purdue pegboard in order to learn as much about an individual's traits as possible

a.
Holland

b.
Osipow**************

c.
Roe

d.
Super

19. According to attribution theory, people determine what has caused some event in their environment using three criteria:

a.
persons, entities, or times.

b.
distinctiveness, consensus, or consistency.*****************

c.
who, what, or when.

d.
internal, external, or global.

20. Tina, who is generally easy going, became short tempered after a run-in with a rude, irate customer. According to attribution theory, her behavior would be considered

a.
consistent.

b.
global.

c.
stable.

d.
distinctive.*****************

21. Which of the following describes the sample used in the construction of the SVIB?

a.
Restricted to less than 20 occupations.

b.
An all male sample.

c.
A predominantly young adult sample.

d.
A good normative sample.****************

22. Which test was carefully designed to be culturally fair?

a.
CISS

b.
CAI*****************

c.
KOIS

d.
SCII

23. Studies of the Self-Directed Search (SDS) have shown that respondents tend to score their own tests

a.
accurately.************

b.
in a biased manner toward the career they were originally planning.

c.
in gender-specific ways.

d.
with a number of mathematical errors.

24. Which measure includes an extroversion scale that helps guide respondents to occupations with the appropriate amount and intensity of interpersonal relations?

a.
CISS****************

b.
CAI

c.
KOIS

d.
SCII

25. Research on attribution theory suggests that people tend to describe others in terms of ____, but explain their own behavior in terms of ____.

a.
situations; traits

b.
traits; personalities

c.
traits; situations****************

d.
specific context; situations

26. Scales like the SCII and the KOIS are based on

a.
measures that assess an individual's aptitude for a particular occupation.

b.
an assessment of crystallized intelligence.

c.
similar interests between test takers and persons in a particular occupation.****************

d.
measures that predict how successful a person is likely to be in an occupation.

27. Barbara is motivated by power and political strength. Which of Holland's personality factors does this reflect?

a.
enterprising**************

b.
ego strength

c.
interpersonal

d.
dominance

28. Influencing, Helping, and Creating are three of the seven orientation scales that are part of the

a.
Campbell Interest and Skill Inventory.************

b.
Jackson Vocational Interest Survey.

c.
Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory.

d.
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.

29. The 1966 version of SVIB used standard scores with a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____.

a.
0; 1

b.
50; 10****************

c.
100; 15

d.
100; 10

30. David is very active politically and generally likes to be the leader of any group he joins. According to Holland's six personality factors, David is likely to fall on the ____ factor.

a.
realistic

b.
investigative

c.
social

d.
enterprising****************

31. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the

a.
Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.***************

b.
Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory.

c.
Career Assessment Inventory.

d.
Carnegie Interest Inventory.

32. The report that is generated for the KOIS presents ____ in the first section.

a.
dependability of the results****************

b.
rank-ordered interest patterns

c.
ranks of different occupations

d.
matches with different college majors

33. The expectation that a person has about their ability to perform the tasks associated with a particular occupation is known as

a.
social desirability.

b.
egocentrism.

c.
self-efficacy.****************

d.
attribution bias.

34. Which of the following is a valid criticism of the SVIB?

a.
It has problems with gender bias.****************

b.
It lacks reliability.

c.
It yields unstable scores.

d.
It has poor predictive validity.

35. Which of the following is considered the first step in identifying an appropriate career path?

a.
Identifying the school subject in which you made the best grades.

b.
Evaluating your interests.**************

c.
Choosing a college major.

d.
Talking to individuals about their professions.

1. Clinical neuropsychology is multidisciplinary and overlaps with the fields of

a.
psychiatry, neurology, and psychometric testing.************

b.
operant conditioning, nuclear medicine, and neurology.

c.
counseling, neurology and psychometric testing.

d.
psychiatry, nephrology, and psychometric testing.

2. After suffering from a stroke, Louise has problems dressing and seems to have trouble telling her right from her left. She also has trouble reading because she cannot seem to recognize written words. It is quite likely that the damage from the stroke

a.
affected the right hemisphere of her brain.

b.
affected the left hemisphere of her brain.**********************

c.
is not responsible for the deficits she is experiencing.

d.
effected both sides of her brain.

3. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by

a.
difficulty hearing.

b.
impaired verbal comprehension.****************

c.
impaired reading ability.

d.
impaired psychomotor abilities.

4. Your textbook presents the case of a patient who exhibited deterioration in performance on the Draw-a-Clock task, which was administered three times from 1996 to 1999. The pattern of the patient's performance indicated that

a.
he was probably schizophrenic.

b.
he was most likely illiterate.

c.
parietal lobe functioning had deteriorated.************

d.
dopamine production had deteriorated.

5. Dyslexia is an example of a

a.
subcortical dementia.

b.
speech disorder.

c.
short-term memory deficit.

d.
learning disability.************

6. The Halstead-Reitan Battery can assist in assessing

a.
tumors from heart disease.

b.
left versus right hemisphere brain lesions.***************

c.
subcortical versus cortical brain lesions.

d.
peripheral versus central nervous system lesions.

7. A standardized version of Luria's procedure was developed by

a.
Benton.

b.
Golden.******************

c.
Mirsky.

d.
Geschwind.

8. Stress is a response to situations that involve

a.
demands, constraints, or deadlines.

b.
fear, frustration, or demands.

c.
frustration, constraints, or opportunities.

d.
demands, constraints, or opportunities.**************

9. The Test Anxiety Questionnaire distinguishes between the ____ drive and the ____ drive.

a.
learned task; learned anxiety**************

b.
stress; anxiety

c.
learned task; learned hopelessness

d.
learned helplessness; learned anxiety

10. Why is ANAM one of the most important developments in clinical neuropsychology?

a.
ANAM takes eight hours to administer.

b.
ANAM is the first neurological test to measure psychological disorder.

c.
ANAM is an automated neuropsychological test.************

d.
ANAM only requires a single task.

11. Which of the following is associated with left-sided brain injury?

a.
visual-spatial defects

b.
problems recognizing written words******************

c.
problems with spatial calculations

d.
inability to recognize a physical deficit

12. Which component of the Halstead-Reitan assesses current learning skills, mental efficiency, and abstract concept formation?

a.
category****************

b.
trail making

c.
rhythm

d.
tactual

13. Decision theory approaches to quality of life measurement have the advantage of providing

a.
a complex profile of health status.

b.
a basis to compare patients with very different conditions.*************

c.
a method for predicting future illness.

d.
unweighted dimensions of health.

14. Why is brain injury in children difficult to detect?

a.
Neuroimaging tests are not safe to administer to children.

b.
The smaller size of children's brains makes it more difficult to detect injuries.

c.
Functional impairments may not appear until they are older and presented with new challenges.**********************

d.
It is difficult to get any child to attend to and perform well on neuropsychological assessments.

15. Which of the following is the LEAST stable over time?

a.
cognitive deficits

b.
stress levels****************

c.
traits

d.
states

16. Despite its limitations, which of the following is the most commonly used behavioral measure in contemporary medicine?

a.
Nottingham Health Profile

b.
Sickness Impact Profile

c.
Index of Activities of Daily Living

d.
SF-36*****************

17. Which of the following is true of decision and utility theory?

a.
It makes managers more likely to use data.

b.
It is widely used in employee selection.

c.
It requires information that is difficult to estimate.***************

d.
It has been rejected for use in medical research.

18. The percent of cases in which a test accurately predicts success or failure is known as the

a.
rate of accuracy (RA).

b.
positive percentile.

c.
hit rate.************

d.
base rate.

19. In decision analysis, the detection rate is the same thing as

a.
the sensitivity.**************

b.
the specificity.

c.
the accuracy rate.

d.
the false positive rate.

20. Students selected on the basis of a test for a graduate training program frequently leave prior to completion because of poor grades. This is an example of a

a.
false negative.

b.
high cutting score.

c.
high base rate.

d.
false positive.**********

21. Suppose that 100 people applied for a job and that 50 will be selected. The base rate for success on the job is .60 and the applicants would be selected on the basis of a test with a validity of .80. What would the probability of success be given rejection?

a.
44/50

b.
44/60

c.
6/60

d.
16/50***********

22. Incremental validity

a.
is less valuable than face validity.

b.
defines the base rate in utility theory.

c.
is an estimate of the hit rate.

d.
tells you what you can gain by using a particular test.***********

23. Jason had worked very hard to accurately and quickly perform every task assigned to him. Still, his supervisor gave him a low rating. Research indicates that supervisors

a.
are the most accurate judge of an employee's performance.

b.
are not influenced by petty concerns such as their own job security.

c.
are known to be inaccurate raters.***********

d.
give lower performance ratings if they are conflicted about their own role.

24. According to Jung's theory, knowing something because we can see it would be considered

a.
intuition.

b.
sensing.***********

c.
feeling.

d.
vision.

25. The purpose of the Myers-Briggs test is to determine

a.
whether people are clinically depressed.

b.
if a potential employee will be successful in a particular job.

c.
where people fall on the introversion-extroversion dimension.***********

d.
the IQ of older employees compared to younger employees.

26. The WPT is a(n)

a.
computer adaptive test.

b.
very long test to administer.

c.
stable test with extensive norms.*************

d.
test with extensive validity documentation.

27. A work situation is described as follows: hot, high pressure for production, little reinforcement for production, and low pay. This description employs which approach to assessment?

a.
personality

b.
environmental classification************

c.
persons-situation interaction

d.
job stress

28. The predictive validity of most selections tests

a.
is very low.

b.
is only modest.****************

c.
is between .7 and .8.

d.
is never less than .9.

29. The percentage of applicants who are hired or admitted to a program is known as the

a.
base rate.

b.
reliability coefficient.

c.
selection ratio.*************

d.
validity coefficient.

30. All of the following have been associated with workplace depression EXCEPT

a.
working in isolated environments.***********

b.
having little job latitude.

c.
feeling strain from work.

d.
being bullied by other employees.

31. Which of the following is predicted by the Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale?

a.
Citizenship within organizations

b.
Citizenship within organizations************

c.
Promotion potential

d.
Productivity

32. Initial impressions in job interviews can have _______ effects on overall evaluations and are often _______.

a.
strong; accurate

b.
strong; inaccurate**************

c.
weak; accurate

d.
weak; inaccurate

33. The template-matching technique attempts to match a specific template of behavior to

a.
job performance.

b.
test scores.

c.
personality.*****************

d.
interest inventories.

34. A(n) ____ is used by job analysts to describe the activities and working conditions associated with a job title.

a.
incident report

b.
checklist****************

c.
base rate

d.
interview

35. Behavioral factors like smoking predict life expectancy ________ measures of physical indicators like blood pressure.

a.
only when considered along with

b.
as well as*******************

c.
better than

d.
worse than

1. Much of the controversy regarding testing has centered on the finding that on average, the IQ scores of African Americans are

a.
15 points above the scores of white Americans.

b.
20 points below the scores of white Americans.

c.
one standard deviation below the scores of white Americans.****************

d.
two standard deviations below the scores of white Americans.

2. A test has adverse impact if it

a.
decreases an individual's self-esteem.

b.
systematically rejects higher proportions of minority than non-minority individuals.*********************

c.
prevents non-minority applicants from being hired.

d.
is used by an untrained administrator.

3. African American children significantly outperform white children on which test?

a.
SAT

b.
Chitling*******************

c.
WISC-R

d.
Binet

4. Which of the following is true of biased test items?

a.
Items believed to be biased rarely are biased.

b.
Apparently biased test items actually decrease test score differences.

c.
Elimination of biased items does not eliminate test score differences.*********************

d.
It is impossible to eliminate bias because every item is, in some way, biased.

5. In one study on content bias in elementary reading tests, groups of experts were able to inspect the test and eliminate items that were potentially biased toward the majority group. How did this affect the differences between scores obtained by groups of majority and minority students?

a.
Differences were eliminated.

b.
Differences became greater.

c.
It had little or no effect.********************

d.
Minority students scored better than majority students.

6. What did psychologist Carol Dweck identify as a crucial ingredient of intellectual growth of children and young adults?

a.
mindsets***********

b.
reasoning abilities

c.
cultural awareness

d.
personality

7. A limitation of the BITCH is

a.
lack of manualized administration.

b.
too few items.

c.
little convincing validity data.***************

d.
lack of normative data.

8. Which SOMPA component uses the norms within a particular subgroup for defining deviance?

a.
pluralistic************

b.
social

c.
organizational

d.
communal

9. The phrase "everyone can succeed if they work really hard" reflects which type of mindset?

a.
growth**************

b.
unqualified individualist

c.
fixed

d.
ambitious

10. An intervention to increase growth mindsets among students from economically disadvantaged backgrounds had what effect?

a.
Increased GPAs**********

b.
Increased self-esteem

c.
Increased the percentage of students who changed majors after their first year

d.
Decreased test anxiety

11. Which term was coined in the most recent version of Standards For Educational And Psychological Testing to describe different patterns of association between test scores and criterion variables for different demographic groups?

a.
Unqualified individualism

b.
Stereotype threat

c.
Predictive bias***************

d.
Criterion-related validity

12. A fixed mindset is associated with a ________ view of intelligence.

a.
environmental

b.
cognitive

c.
genetic************

d.
cultural

13. Studies that have examined the correlation between measures of medical school success and success as a physician in practice have shown

a.
the correlation to be very high.

b.
only a moderate correlation.

c.
almost no correlation.******************8

d.
that successful students make successful doctors.

14. The phrase "girls can't do math" reflects which type of mindset?

a.
fixed*****************

b.
biased

c.
gendered

d.
growth

15. Which of the following approaches leads to the highest expected performance on the criterion?

a.
regression********************

b.
constant ratio

c.
Cole/Darlington

d.
quota

16. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

a.
evolved from the Civil Rights Act of 1964.******************

b.
evolved from the Equal Employment Act of 1964.

c.
only has influence in non-governmental agencies.

d.
was created during the Reagan Administration.

17. ABC Company has received 150 job applicants for a job opening: 100 white applicants, 25 Mexican Americans, and 25 African Americans. They hired 60 of the white applicants. How many of the other two groups do they have to hire in order to abide by the four-fifths rule?

a.
12 from each group*****************

b.
a total of 24 in any combination

c.
15 from each group

d.
a total of 30 in any combination

18. The organization most responsible for getting the Educational Testing Service to revise some of their policies was the

a.
EEQC.

b.
FDA.

c.
SDPD.

d.
NYPIRG.*******************

19. In 1980, the EEOC added specific guidelines on

a.
physical disabilities.

b.
sexual harassment.********************

c.
educational requirements.

d.
racial discrimination.

20. If prospective employees feel they have been treated unfairly, they can file complaints with the

a.
EEOC.********************

b.
FDA.

c.
SDPD.

d.
NYPIRG.

21. The New York Truth in Testing Law

a.
applies only to the ETS.

b.
was written for the ETS but applies to many companies.***************

c.
was the result of an investigation into the NYPIRG.

d.
is a federal regulation.

22. The type of test that came under scrutiny in the Debra P. v. Turlington case was a

a.
standard intelligence test.

b.
multicultural pluralistic test.

c.
personnel test.

d.
minimum competency test.********************

23. In ____, the courts found against a law school applicant and in favor of the university policy of using racial or ethnic group as one of several factors in the admissions policy.

a.
Hobson v. Hansen

b.
Diana v. State Board of Education

c.
Grutter v. Bollinger***********

d.
Gratz v. Bollinger

24. Specific restrictions have been placed on the use of tests for the selection of employees through a series of Supreme Court decisions. The effect of these decisions

a.
denies that tests are valuable tools in the personnel field.

b.
denies that the use of tests can continue in the personnel field.

c.
has been to force employers to define the relationship between test scores and job performance and to define the measure of job performance.****************

d.
groups and not specific individuals are protected from biased testing procedures.

25. In the case of Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn, the settlement suggested that

a.
items for insurance licensing tests should be revised to reduce racial bias.****************************

b.
items for police academy admissions tests should be revised to reduce racial bias.

c.
items for firemen selection tests should be revised to reduce racial bias.

d.
ETS would make an admission of guilt.

26. Although the Supreme Court refused to hear the case, Wards Cove Packing Company v. Antonio was significant because

a.
it strengthened previous civil rights cases.

b.
it overturned the Larry P. case.

c.
it overturned the Crawford case.

d.
it shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.*****************

27. Meredith v. Jefferson County Board of Education was significant because it

a.
strengthened previous civil rights cases.

b.
overturned the Larry P. case.

c.
reversed the tide of racial cases related to education.**************

d.
shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.

28. The Common Core State Standards Initiative attempted to define what students should know in which two subjects?

a.
language arts and mathematics***************

b.
mathematics and science

c.
science and language arts

d.
social studies and science

29. African American children were disproportionately assigned to EMR classes on the basis of what?

a.
Course grades.

b.
Classroom behavior.

c.
IQ tests.**************

d.
Classroom participation.

30. Which of the following was NOT one of the policies enacted by NCLB?

a.
Schools were required to use a standard national test.***************

b.
Funding was withdrawn from poorly performing schools.

c.
Student information was reported to military recruiters.

d.
Schools were rewarded for good test grades.

31. Which of the following is the only state with a legal ban on IQ testing of African American children?

a.
New York

b.
Illinois

c.
Washington

d.
California*****************

32. The major focus of the Americans with Disabilities Act is

a.
the prevention of selection bias among disabled individuals.

b.
the removal of physical barriers that may impede the education and employment of disabled individuals.****************

c.
the elimination of psychological tests in employment decisions for people with disabilities.

d.
the education of the public regarding people with disabilities.

33. The Crawford v. Honig case

a.
reaffirmed the Larry P. case.

b.
lifted the ban on Intelligence Testing for African American children.**********************

c.
strengthened the ban on intelligence testing for African American Children.

d.
extended the ban on testing for African American children to Hispanic children.

34. The finding in the Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education case was overturned based on

a.
Brown v. Board of Education.*****************

b.
Plessy v. Ferguson.

c.
Hobson V. Hansen.

d.
Diana v. State Board of Education.

35. The class-action suit, settled out of court, that resulted in non-English speaking students being tested in their primary language was

a.
Hobson v. Hansen.

b.
Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education.

c.
Diana v. State Board of Education.*******************

d.
Larry P. v. Wilson Riles.